The God
Chapter Fifteen
Seeing Things in Context
There are a number of Scriptural passages that are used as “proof texts” to establish Jesus is God as the Father is God. A “proof text” is a passage of scripture taken by itself to establish a particular point of doctrine. In this chapter we will examine these Scriptural passages and determine whether they provide evidence that Jesus is God as the Father is God and whether they present any hint of God being a tri-unity of Father, Son and Spirit.
Scripture #1: Matthew 1:23: Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
This statement about Mary’s son being called Emmanuel which means “God with us” is often seen as straightforward evidence Jesus is God. If His name is “God with us” He must be God. Let’s examine this conclusion by studying the original context from which Matthew’s statement is taken.
Isaiah 7:14. Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
Isaiah chapter seven shows Ahaz was king of
Isaiah 7: 15-16: He will eat curds and honey when he knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right. But before the boy knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right, the land of the two kings you dread will be laid waste.
Isaiah 8:3-8: Then I went to the prophetess, and she conceived and gave birth to a son. And the LORD said to me, "Name him Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz. Before the boy knows how to say `My father' or `My mother,' the wealth of
The sign given to Ahaz was directed to Ahaz and the house of David (
Matthew is using this OT event to show that through Jesus, God would be with His people
Luke 7:16: They were all filled with awe and praised God. "A great prophet has appeared among us," they said. "God has come to help his people."
Scripture #2: Matthew 3:3: This is he who was spoken of through the prophet Isaiah: "A voice of one calling in the desert, `Prepare the way for the Lord, make straight paths for him.'"
This quote from John the Baptist is taken from Isaiah 40:3 where the word Lord is translated from the Hebrew YHWH which, as covered earlier, is the personal name for God. Therefore, this passage is seen as John the Baptist preaching in the desert a message of preparation for the coming of YHWH. Since it is Christ who came, it is believed Christ is YHWH. Jesus, however, places a different spin on what Isaiah said.
Matthew 11:10: This is the one about whom it is written: "`I will send my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your way before you.'
In referring to John the Baptist, Jesus quotes Isaiah as YHWH saying I, YHWH, will send John as a messenger ahead of Jesus to prepare the way for Jesus. This prophecy has to do with John preparing the way for the coming of the anointed of YHWH and not a coming of YHWH Himself. John was calling people to repentance. Preparing the way for the Lord and establishing a highway for God has to do with fulfilling the conditions YHWH wanted to be extant for the arrival of His anointed.
The focus here is not on the person who was coming but on preparing the way for the person who was coming by turning people back to YHWH. Jesus is the recipient of this preparation. It allows Jesus to begin His ministry among people who have begun to turn to God. In essence, YHWH is preparing the way for His anointed through the efforts of John. This is what Jesus is saying in the Matthew 11:10 quote.
Scripture #3: Matthew 9:2-6: Some men brought to him a paralytic, lying on a mat. When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralytic, "Take heart, son; your sins are forgiven." At this, some of the teachers of the law said to themselves, "This fellow is blaspheming!" Knowing their thoughts, Jesus said, "Why do you entertain evil thoughts in your hearts? Which is easier: to say, `Your sins are forgiven,' or to say, `Get up and walk'? But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins. . . ." Then he said to the paralytic, "Get up, take your mat and go home."
God the Father gave Jesus extraordinary power and authority on earth to do many things that could not be done by ordinary humans. Jesus turned water into wine, walked on water, calmed a raging storm, fed thousands of people from a few morsels of food, healed the sick, raised the dead and forgave sin. Matthew recorded the reaction of the people when they saw how Jesus healed the paralytic.
Matthew 9:8: When the crowd saw this, they were filled with awe; and they praised God, who had given such authority to men.
God had given great authority to the man Jesus. Jesus was God’s unique human agent sent to facilitate His will on earth. This authority included giving power and authority to His disciples. The scriptures show Jesus giving authority to His disciples to heal the sick. “Then he called his twelve disciples together, and gave them power and authority over all devils, and to cure diseases (Luke 9:1). After His resurrection He even gives them authority to forgive sin.
John 20:21-23: 21. Again Jesus said, "Peace be with you! As the Father has sent me, I am sending you." And with that he breathed on them and said, "Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive anyone his sins, they are forgiven; if you do not forgive them, they are not forgiven.
The ability to forgive sin or do anything else Jesus gave his disciples power and authority to do did not make those disciples God or equal with God. It did not make them equal with Christ. What we are seeing here is granted power and authority. God granted power and authority to Jesus which included giving Jesus the ability to grant power and authority to others. The fact Jesus did everything His Father empowered Him to do does not make Him equal to His Father anymore than Jesus empowering His disciples made them equal with Him.
Athanasius, in his treatise entitled, “The Incarnation of the Word of God” written in the early fourth century, argued that Jesus must be God because only God could make the blind see, cast out demons, turn water into wine, walk on water and raise the dead. What Athanasius failed to mention was that Peter, James, John and Paul also performed great supernatural acts. This didn’t make these men God. Peter raised Dorcas from the dead. The power of Apostle Peter was so pronounced that in Acts 5:15, it is implied that even the shadow of Peter passing over someone was enough to facilitate healing. These men were imbued with power and authority because God gave it to them. This did not make them equal with God. Why should it be assumed Jesus was equal with God because he performed miracles? In Acts 19:11-12 we read, “God did extraordinary miracles through Paul, so that even handkerchiefs and aprons that had touched him were taken to the sick, and their illnesses were cured and the evil spirits left them.” Did this make Paul God?
Scripture makes it clear God the Father granted Jesus great power and authority. It does not follow from this that Jesus is co-equal, co-eternal and con-substantial with the one granting Him such authority and power. Jesus plainly said that all He did came from the Father and it was the Father doing the works through Him (John 5:19). The Apostles did great works by the power of God. The great works Jesus did were enabled by the power of God. The one and only Supreme God is the source of the power and authority displayed by Christ and the Apostles. Their exercise of God's power doesn't equate with their being the source of that power.
Scripture #4: John 5:16-18: So, because Jesus was doing these things on the Sabbath, the Jews persecuted him. Jesus said to them, "My Father is always at his work to this very day, and I, too, am working." For this reason the Jews tried all the harder to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.
Here we see the Jews accusing Jesus of breaking the Sabbath and also making Himself equal with God by calling God His Father. Keep in mind it is the Jews who are accusing Jesus of breaking the Sabbath and making Himself equal with God. Jesus never admitted to breaking the Sabbath and neither did He ever claim to be God. Jesus answered the Jews by saying the following:
John 5:19: Jesus gave them this answer: "I tell you the truth, the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because whatever the Father does the Son also does.
Trinitarianism teaches the Son is a person or distinction of a Triune God and is God as the Father and Spirit are God. It is believed “God the Son” became incarnate in a human body and was God in the flesh. Trinitarianism, also teaches there is no separation in the Triune God. All three distinctions of the Triune God are equal in every way except that of being each other. Together they form a single Being. If there is no separation in God and God is a single Being, how can it be said the Son distinction of the one God became incarnate in Jesus? If there is no separation in God, God as Father, Son and Spirit would have to incarnate Jesus. If there is no separation in God, how can it be said God incarnated Jesus through the Son? The Scriptures consistently speak of the Son of God. How can the Son be of God if the Son is God?
As previously pointed out, we consistently read in the Scriptures of the Son of God and the Spirit of God but never the Father of God. This should be very instructive as to who God actually is. Jesus spoke of His Father being in heaven and consistently related to His Father as a separate Being. Jesus plainly said He could do nothing by Himself. If Jesus is coequal with the Father, why is he dependent on the Father for everything He does?
Since Jesus is seen as totally God and totally man in Trinitarian thought, it is argued His dependence on the Father is only a dependence necessitated by His humanity. Yet the consistent Scriptural view is that the Father, as the one and only Supreme God, is superior to the Son, always has been and always will be (1 Corinthians 11:3 and 15:28). Jesus plainly said the Father is greater than He (John 14:28). Jesus clearly said the Father is the only true God (John 17:3). Jesus never said He was God or that He was equal with God. The Jews, in accusing Jesus of making Himself equal with the Father, were as mistaken in this accusation as they were in accusing Jesus of breaking the Sabbath because He healed on the Sabbath. All of NT Scripture teaches us Jesus related to the Father as his superior, both during His earthly ministry and after His ascension.
Scripture #5: Romans 9:5: Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen.
Is Paul identifying Jesus as God in this passage? Greek manuscripts of the NT do not contain punctuation. Punctuation was added by the translators based on their understanding of the context in which a word or passage is found. Interpretation, as well as doctrinal predisposition, has always played a role in determining how translators transfer meaning from one language into another. This is especially true of ambiguous passages. Romans 9:5 can be punctuated either with a period or a comma after the word Christ depending on what the translator feels the writer is saying. While a number of translations place a comma after the word Christ, others do not. For example, the Revised Standard Version has it this way:
“to them belong the patriarchs, and of their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ. God who is over all be blessed for ever. Amen.”
How can we know what is the correct way to punctuate this passage? Looking at Paul’s letter to the Romans as a whole, it will be seen Paul always distinguishes between Jesus Christ and God. The word God (Greek Theos) appears 153 times in Romans in addition to its appearance in 9:5. In all these 153 occurrences, it can be clearly seen Paul associates the word God with the Father. This pattern is seen overwhelmingly in all of Paul’s letters. Therefore, it appears extremely unlikely Paul changes his manner of expression by suddenly calling Jesus God when in every other instance he associates God with the Father.
A number of commentators have focused attention on what appears to be a doxology at the end of 9:5. Doxologies are closing statements, hymns or prayers directed to the praise of God. Paul’s statement in 9:5, “God who is over all be blessed (Greek: ulogeetos) for ever. Amen” (RSV), is seen as a clear doxology in the same vain as others found in the writings of Paul. Paul’s use of the Greek ulogeetos is instructive. He consistently uses this word in praise to God the Father in his writings. If Paul is using this word in reference to Christ in 9:5, it would be a noted departure from the manner in which he uses this word in the rest of his writings. Here are some examples of doxologies and Paul’s use of ulogeetos.
2 Corinthians 1:3: Praise (ulogeetos) be to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of compassion and the God of all comfort.
2 Corinthians 11:31: The God and Father of the Lord Jesus, who is to be praised (ulogeetos) forever, knows that I am not lying.
Ephesians 1:3: Praise (ulogeetos) be to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in the heavenly realms with every spiritual blessing in Christ.
In view of Paul’s consistent use of doxologies in praise to God the Father, it is very unlikely Paul suddenly uses a doxology in praise to “God the Son.” As previously pointed out, nowhere does Paul use the phrase “God the Son” nor is this phrase found anywhere in Scripture. Paul consistently writes in terms of the “God and Father of our Lord Jesus.”
It should be noted, however, that even if it could be shown Paul is calling Jesus God, this would not necessarily mean Jesus is the one and only God in a Triune relationship of Father, Son and Spirit. It is a common tendency on the part of Trinitarians to draw such a conclusion when viewing Scriptures that may reference Jesus as being God. As previously discussed, there is nothing inherent in the Hebrew elohim or the Greek theos to imply eternal existence. These words are used to identify angles, prophets, judges, Kings of Israel and even Satan. These words are used to identify individuals having, or having been granted, power, authority and leadership. Determining Jesus is God in the same manner the Father is God cannot be done strictly by referring to scriptural passages where Jesus appears to be called God. We must look at the whole of scripture to make such determination.
Scripture #6: Titus 2:11-14: For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men. It teaches us to say "No" to ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright and godly lives in this present age, while we wait for the blessed hope--the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all wickedness and to purify for himself a people that are his very own, eager to do what is good.
The NIV translates verse 13 of this passage in such manner as to show there to be one subject (God) and that subject to be Jesus Christ, seen as the great God and Savior who’s appearing is anticipated. Other translations show two subjects and therefore could be read with God being one referent and Jesus being another.
“Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ (KJV).
“Looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ (ASV).
Scholars are divided as to how best to render this passage. Some see it referring only to Christ and some see it referring separately to God the Father and to Jesus Christ. The presence of the Greek kai (and) between the first noun (God) which is proceeded by the definite article tou (the) and the second noun (Jesus) preceded by no article has led some to conclude that God and Jesus are being identified as the same person in this passage. It is believed that if Jesus is to be identified as separate from God a definite article would precede His name. Others cite scriptural passages with similar Greek grammar construction where a definite article precedes the first noun but not the second noun and where context clearly shows two different individuals being referenced.
Those who believe this passage refers only to Jesus believe Jesus is identified as YHWH. Verse 14 of this chapter speaks of how Christ gave Himself to redeem us and purify a people for His very own. Since the OT speaks of God (YHWH) as Savior and redeemed people are spoken of as being God’s possession, it is felt that similar language in the NT testifies of Jesus being YHWH. However, Jesus plainly says that those given to Him were given to Him by God His Father. This shows Jesus being the subordinate agent of the Father unto whom the Father has given a redeemed people. In praying to the Father Jesus said:
John 17:6-7: I have revealed you to those whom you gave me out of the world. They were yours; you gave them to me and they have obeyed your word. Now they know that everything you have given me comes from you.
It is important we look at the entire context of Paul’s letter to Titus in order to understand what Paul is saying in the passage under consideration. Paul begins his letter by writing, “Paul, a servant of God and an apostle of Jesus Christ” (Titus 1:1). He goes on to write that the preaching entrusted to him is by the “command of God our Savior” (Verse 3). He continues his greeting to Titus by writing, “Grace and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Savior” (Verse 4). Paul proceeds to give instruction in Christian living and concludes this instruction by writing, “so that in every way they will make the teaching about God our Savior attractive” (Titus 2:10). Paul then makes the comments quoted above in Titus 2:11-13. Paul finishes his letter by continuing to instruct in matters of Christian living and then writes the following:
Titus 3:4-6: But when the kindness and love of God our Savior appeared, he (God) saved us, not because of righteous things we had done, but because of his (God’s) mercy. He (God) saved us through the washing of rebirth and renewal by the Holy Spirit, whom he (God) poured out on us generously through Jesus Christ our Savior
As Paul consistently does in his letters, he begins by distinguishing between God and Christ (Titus 1:1). In his greeting to Titus, he also distinguishes between God the Father and Christ Jesus as Savior (Verse 4). In verse 3 he writes about preaching by the “command of God our Savior.” In Titus 2:10, Paul writes of practicing proper behavior in order to make the teaching of God our Savior attractive. In Titus 3:4-6, it is evident Paul is referring to the Father in speaking of the “love of God our Savior” which He generously poured out through Jesus Christ our Savior.
In chapter one of a letter to Timothy, Paul clearly distinguishes between God and Jesus by saying he is an Apostle by “the command of God our Savior and Christ Jesus our hope.” In chapter two of this letter the context shows it is the Father Paul calls God our Savior in distinction from the man Jesus who is seen as a mediator between the Father and men. Jude also writes in terms of God our Savior in distinction from Jesus as Lord. Both Paul and Jude write in terms of God the Father being the one God.
1 Timothy 1:1-2: Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the command of God our Savior and of Christ Jesus our hope. Grace, mercy and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Lord (2b).
1 Timothy 2:3-5: This is good, and pleases God our Savior, who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth. For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
Jude 1:25: to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.
In the passages we have been reviewing it is evident both God the Father and Christ Jesus the Son are seen as Savior. The phrase “God our Savior” appears seven times in the NT. In four of these passages (Titus 3:4-6, 1 Timothy 1:1-2, 2:3-5 and Jude 1:25), it can be seen by context it is God the Father who is being referred to as “God our Savior.” The most definitive passage is 1Timothy 2:3-5, where the phrase “God our Savior” refers to the one and only God in distinction from the man Jesus. Titus 3:4-6 is also definitive in identifying “God our Savior” as the one who gives us salvation through Jesus. In view of Paul’s use of “God our Savior” in clear association with the Father in Titus 3:4-6 and 1 Timothy 1:1-2 and 2:3-5, it is reasonable to conclude Paul is referring to the Father as God our Savior in Titus 1:3 and 2:10 as well when he writes about preaching at the command of God our Savior and making the teaching about God our Savior attractive.
The whole focus of the salvation message is that God the Father loves us and because He loves us He provided for our deliverance from eternal death through the Christ event. Scripture clearly shows salvation comes from God the Father and is facilitated through Jesus. Therefore, God the Father is our ultimate Savior and Jesus is the agent through whom the Father’s salvation is accomplished. Therefore, when Paul writes of waiting for the “blessed hope--the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,” he is in all likelihood referring to the Father as the Great God who facilitates salvation through Jesus (Titus 2:13). Paul writes in Titus 2:11 that the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men. Paul’s reference to the grace of God in this passage is a reference to the grace of the Father as is confirmed in Hebrews 2:9-10. The Hebrews passage shows it is by the grace of God that Christ became the author of salvation. We know the writer to the Hebrews is speaking about the grace of God the Father because the whole of Scripture shows it is God the Father who has facilitated salvation through Christ Jesus. Remember, Christ Jesus means Anointed Savior.
Hebrews 2:9-10: But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God (The Father) he might taste death for everyone. In bringing many sons to glory, it was fitting that God (The Father), for whom and through whom everything exists, should make the author of their salvation perfect through suffering.
Scripture #7: 2 Peter 1:1-2: Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ have received a faith as precious as ours: Grace and peace be yours in abundance through the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord.
The Greek grammatical construction of “our God and Savior Jesus Christ” is the same as in Titus 2:13 except here the writer does not refer to God as the “great God.” The same grammatical construction is repeated in verse 11 where Peter writes, “and you will receive a rich welcome into the eternal kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.” In this verse, one person is clearly in view, namely Jesus Christ.
The grammatical construction found in 2 Peter 1:1-2 and in Titus 2:13 does allow for having just one person in view. It also allows for having two persons in view and is so rendered in a number of translations of which the following are examples:
“to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ” (KJV).
“to them that have obtained a like precious faith with us in the righteousness of our God and the Saviour Jesus Christ:” (ASV).
“to those who are chancing upon an equally precious faith with us, in righteousness of our God, and the Savior, Jesus Christ” (Concordant Literal New Testament).
It is instructive that in verse 2 is found the exact same grammatical construction where Peter says, “through the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord.” Here a definite distinction is made between God and Jesus because Jesus is identified as Lord in distinction from God. What is of greater significance in our quest to determine what Peter is saying is the fact Peter clearly distinguishes between Jesus and God the Father in all his other writings. He refers to Jesus twelve times as Lord and forty-five times to God as Father. There is no reference to Jesus as God found in Peter's writings other than the possible reference in 1 Peter chapter one. The weight of references to the Father as God and the one single possible reference to Jesus as God makes it highly unlikely Peter is calling Jesus God.
Apostles Paul and Peter refer to God as Father 99% of the time and only on a few occasions is there a possible reference to Jesus as God. Such tremendous disparity in the way the word God is used by these Apostles in association with the Father as opposed to the Son is instructive to say the least. Therefore, it is vitally important we consider the whole of Scripture in determining how its authors use the word God in association with Jesus in the few instances where the Greek grammar allows for such association.
Scripture #8: Acts 20:28: Keep watch over yourselves and all the flock of which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers. Be shepherds of the
Since it is Jesus who shed His blood, some believe this passage says God shed his blood and so Jesus must be God. This passage, however, is ambiguous because English translations differ depending upon what Greek manuscripts were used as the source for translation. Some translators used manuscripts that have the Greek kurios rather than theos and thus translate the passage as “church of the Lord.” Reference to the Lord is seen as a reference to Christ and therefore this passage in these translations have no bearing on the matter of Jesus being or not being God as the entire focus is on Jesus.
Take heed unto yourselves, and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit hath made you bishops, to feed the church of the Lord which he purchased with his own blood (ASV).
Some commentators have pointed out that the literal translation of the Greek at the end of this passage is “with the blood of his own.” The phrase “his own” is felt to be a reference to the Son and therefore the passage is sometimes translated as “with the blood of His own Son.”
Take heed to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the
As can be seen, there are several different ways of translating this passage depending on the Greek manuscript used and the manner in which the Greek construction is understood. The “
Ehrman believes the textual variant of “church of the Lord” was an attempt to moderate the Patripassianist view that God the Father became Jesus and shed his blood. Some later Greek manuscripts are seen to further adjust the passage to read “the church of the Lord and God.” In the oldest Greek manuscripts the end of this passage is rendered “the blood of his own” while in later texts, including most modern Greek texts, the rendering is “his own blood” thus making “his own” refer back to God. What it appears we are seeing is that over the centuries, copiers (scribes) of the Greek text made adjustments of the Greek text to reflect what those in positions of Church leadership promoted as orthodox. What appears to be the case, as Ehrman points out, is that at times adjustments were made one way and at other times adjustments were made the other way in order to counter what were considered unorthodox teachings.
In the case of Acts 20:28, it appears that “church of God” and “the blood of his own” is what the author intended as this is the rendering found in many of the oldest manuscripts and is also in harmony with other scriptures. This would permit the passage to say that God purchased the church through the shedding of the blood of His own Son. This would harmonize well with I John 1:7 where God's Son Jesus is seen as shedding His blood for sin. Yet in most of the more recent Greek texts, we see the rending “his own blood.” This appears to be a deliberate “adjustment” to support the idea that the reference to God in this passage is a reference to Jesus and therefore tacitly provides support for the Trinity.
All this raises the obvious question as to how much has orthodoxy influenced the transmission of scripture versus scripture being allowed to influence and determine orthodoxy? This is a very delicate dynamic and it should instruct us to be very careful in how scripture is used to establish doctrine, especially a doctrine as foundational as the nature of the Father, Son and Spirit. It is very apparent that Greek texts differ in their rendering of certain passages and English and other language translations taken from such Greek texts will reflect such differences. Historically, translators have had to make choices as to what texts to use. It is evident from the variance seen in renderings; choices are often made on the basis of what is orthodox theology at the time. This, however, does not ensure that the rendering chosen is that which best reflects the thinking of the original author.