The God

 OF

 Jesus

A comprehensive examination of Trinitarianism

                      

Chapter Fourteen

God, Your God

       Hebrews 1: 8-9, is used as a major support for the proposition Jesus is God in every respect the Father is God short of being the Father. 

       Hebrews 1:8-9: But about the Son he says, "Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions by anointing you with the oil of joy.

       Nearly all English translations take the phrase “Your throne, O God” as a vocative clause in the Greek which means that grammatically it indicates that something or someone is being directly addressed.  There are some Greek scholars who see this phrase as a nominative clause and translate it as “God is your throne” implying that God the Father is the source of Jesus’ authority.  While this is a grammatically acceptable rendering of this phrase, the majority of commentators on this passage see this as a vocative clause referring to Jesus as God.

       Scholarship has determined the writer of this passage is quoting from a psalm written as a wedding song for a Davidic King, most likely Solomon.  The writer to the Hebrews sees the Psalm written for Israel’s King as applicable to Jesus who God the Father has appointed King over Israel and the entire human race.  

       Psalm 45:6-7: Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever; a scepter of justice will be the scepter of your kingdom. You love righteousness and hate wickedness; therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions by anointing you with the oil of joy.

       This psalm is directed to a human king who is called god (elohim).  Calling human rulers god (elohim) is common in OT literature.  It is a title applied to one having great power and authority.  Kings have great power and authority.  Judges are called gods (elohim) in Psalm 82. The application of Psalm 45 to Christ is very appropriate as He has been granted great power and authority over angels and all other created beings.  This does not mean Christ is God as the Father is God any more than a King in Israel was God as the Father is God even though such Kings were called elohim.  The evidence that Christ is not God as the Father is God is found in verse nine.

       Hebrews 1:9.  “Therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions by anointing you with the oil of joy." 

       Here we see the one God addressing Christ as being Christ’s God.  If Christ is also the one God, we then have the one God addressing the one God which makes no sense at all.  When this was written, Jesus was in His glorified state at the right hand of the Father.  Yet God is seen as being His God.  This clearly shows God to be a separate and distinct Being from Jesus and as such is the God of Jesus.  The author continues by writing the following:

       Hebrews 1:10-12: He also says, "In the beginning, O Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands. They will perish, but you remain; they will all wear out like a garment.   You will roll them up like a robe; like a garment they will be changed. But you remain the same, and your years will never end."      

       This is a quote from Psalm 102:25-27 where the Psalmist is addressing YHWH as creator and being without end.  The Greek text shows Hebrews 1:10 begins with the word “And.”  Most English translations begin this passage with the word “And.” The phrase “He also says,” as found in the NIV, is not in the Greek text.  Some theologians believe the word “And” continues the thought seen in verse nine which makes the reference to “Lord” at the beginning of verse ten refer back to God (the Father) who is last mentioned in verse nine.

       Hebrews 1:9-12: But to the Son He says: "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your Kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; therefore God, Your God, has anointed You with the oil of gladness more than Your companions.''  And: "You, Lord, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the work of Your hands; They will perish, but You remain; and they will all grow old like a garment; Like a cloak You will fold them up, and they will be changed. But You are the same, and Your years will not fail'' (NKJV).

       The author begins this passage by using Psalm 45:6-7 to show how God the Father has anointed the Son.  The author goes on to quote Psalm 102:25-27 which pays tribute to YHWH as creator. As previously discussed, throughout the OT, the Father is identified as the one and only Creator God (YHWH).  Therefore, it is reasonable to believe the author of Hebrews is referencing this Psalm in praise to the creative power and enduring nature of YHWH who is the Father and who has given great power and authority and an everlasting kingdom to His Christ (the anointed of YHWH).  The designation Lord is associated with both God the Father and Jesus in the NT Scripture. In the OT a distinction is made between Adonai (YHWH) and adoni (The Son) as discussed in Chapter Three of this material.  That it is Adonai as Lord (The Father) being addressed in this passage is confirmed by the over all context of Hebrews, chapter one.

        This chapter begins by showing how in the past God spoke to the forefathers through the prophets but has now spoken through his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.  

       Hebrews 1:1-2: In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

       If the Son is YHWH God as the Father is YHWH God and the Son as YHWH God is creator of all things as many believe, why would the Son be appointed heir of all things?  Being an heir is to be in a position to inherit what you don’t currently own.  If the Son is YHWH, He would own all things by virtue of having created all things. 

       It is instructive that the Greek word translated “universe” in Hebrews 1:1-2 in the NIV and “world” in many other translations is aion.  This Greek word appears 165 times in the New Testament and is variously translated as “world,” “age” and “ever.”  It means a segment of time. It can relate to a long period of time and even time without end (forever) or a short period of time.  Context determines it usage.  The Greek kosmos relates to the world as created and the Greek oikoumene refers to the world as inhabited.

       The first century church was experiencing transition to a New Covenant age.  The writer to the Hebrews shows how Christ, as the one through whom the New Covenant was being facilitated, is superior to angles and the Aaronic Priesthood.  God the Father was in the process of creating a new covenant age through Christ, a process that was consummated in the judgement upon Israel in AD 70 when the temple was destroyed and the means to facilitate the Old Covenant system was eliminated. The last days the writer is referring to are the last days of the Old Covenant age which was about to fade away and be replaced by a New Covenant age facilitated by the Father through Christ (Hebrews 8:13).  Now let’s look at verse three.

       Hebrews 1:3: The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven.

       The Greek word translated radiance (NIV) in this passage appears only this once in the NT.  Its basic meaning is “reflected brightness.”  Some versions, such as the KJV, translate it as brightness. Jesus was a reflection of God, His Father.  Being a reflection does not mean Jesus is God as His Father is God any more that my son reflecting me means my son is me as I am me. Jesus saw Himself as a reflection of His Father and told his followers that by seeing and believing in Him one sees the Father.  People were not literally seeing the Father, but they were seeing the character, will and very mind of the Father represented (reflected) in Christ. 

       John 12:44-46: When a man believes in me, he does not believe in me only, but in the one who sent me. When he looks at me, he sees the one who sent me. I have come into the world as a light, so that no one who believes in me should stay in darkness.      

       The writer to the Hebrews points out that Jesus is the representation of God’s Being. This does not mean He is the Being God.  The writer speaks of Christ becoming superior to the angels (Hebrews 1:4).  Wouldn’t the Son already be and always have been superior to the angels if He is God?  The writer says because Christ has loved righteousness and hated wickedness, His God will set Him above his companions (Hebrews 1:9).  If Jesus is God as the Father is God, He would already be and always would have been above His companions. The very language of Hebrews 1:4-9 belies Jesus being God as the Father is God.

       The writer of Hebrews 1:3 further identifies Jesus as “the exact representation (image in some translations) of his being” (person in some translations).   “Of his being” refers to the person of the Father.  The word being or person is translated from the Greek word hypostasis. The Arndt, Gingrich and Bauer Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, defines hypostasis  as substantial nature, essence, actual being or reality of something, often as a contrast of what merely seems to be. Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon, defines hypostasis as a setting or placing under as that which has foundation.  A second definition of Hypostasis is confidence, conviction, assurance and steadfastness. 

       Hypostasis was used by Aristotle and Neo Platonists (third century A.D. followers of the teachings of Plato) to speak of the objective reality of a thing as opposed to its outer form or illusion.  Hypostasis was used by early Church writers such as Origen and Tatian to denote Being or substantive reality.  This Greek word was not always distinguished in meaning from the Greek word ousia which means individual substance or essence. 

       In the formulation of the Trinitarian definition of God by church leaders in the fourth and fifth centuries A.D., ousia came to designate God as a single substance in three hypostasis of Father, Son and Holy Spirit.  Within Christianity, hypostasis became associated with the Greek prosopon, which is translated into Latin as “persona.”  The Latin "persona," literally means “mask” or a character played by an actor. Since an actor can play several roles by simply changing masks this is felt to analogize to one God in three persons or hypostasis.

       An actor, however, can only play one role at any given moment.  Therefore, this analogy fails to support the Trinitarian concept of God which teaches God is three persona (Greek hypostasis) all of the time at the same time.  The idea of the actor changing masks to play different roles is much like the Modalistic model of God taught by the theologian Sabellius in the third century.  As discussed in Chapter Nine, Sabellius taught God is only one person who acts as Father in creating the universe, as Son in redeeming sinners and as Holy Spirit in sanctifying believers. Sabellius viewed the one God playing three different roles at different times in history while retaining single personhood.  Hypostasis appears five times in the NT and in most English translations; four out of those five times the word is translated to reflect the second definition of hypostasis which is confidence or assurance.  This rendering best fits the context in these cases.  Only in Hebrews 1:3 is hypostasis translated in such a way as to reflect the first definition as here the context appears to call for the first definition.  The Greek word for “representation” is karizomai and appears just this once in the NT and in Greek means a mark or stamp, such as in engraving, imprinting or etching.

       Trinitarian theology teaches the writer to the Hebrews is saying the Son is the image of the hypostasis of the one God who is called the Father. The Son is also seen as the stamp, engraving or imprinting of the hypostasis that is the Father. Since the Father is God and the Son is in the image of God the Father and the virtual imprint of God the Father, it is concluded the Son must also be a hypostasis of the one God and therefore is equally God as the Father and the Spirit is God.

       This conclusion is problematic however. Being the image, engraving or imprinting of something does not make one that something?  For example, scripture tells us we humans are made in the image of God.  Yet we obviously are all separate individuals and are not one with God in the Trinitarian sense of being co-equal, un-separated substance.  When coins are engraved, the coins don’t become equal with the engraving device.   

       Hebrews chapter one does not establish Jesus is God as the Father is God.  Instead we see Jesus being given superiority over angels and all other Beings and granted power, authority and a Kingdom by His God which is in harmony with all other Scripture we have discussed that identify the Father as the one and only Supreme Creator God who is the God of Jesus.  Some will object at this point and direct attention to what Thomas said after being convinced Jesus was resurrected from the dead. 

       John 20:28: Thomas said to him, "My Lord (kurios) and my God (Theos)!" 

       Many Trinitarian apologists consider Thomas statement to be the most profound utterance found in Scripture as to Jesus being God.  One commentator calls it the “supreme Christological pronouncement of the fourth gospel.”

       Was Thomas seeing Jesus as the one and only Supreme Creator God of the universe?  As discussed in Chapter three, the Greek theos can be used as a designation for someone other than the one and only Most High Creator God. It can be used as a designation for someone who has or is perceived to have power and authority.  Context must be considered in determining how the word God is used in Scripture. Thomas had doubted Jesus had risen from the dead.  When Thomas became convinced the crucified Christ had actually risen from the dead he had a virtual epiphany. He now understood this was not an ordinary man. Thomas now understood that the man standing before him was indeed the Christ, the anointed of God.  Thomas responded in a euphoric manner and recognized Jesus as his Lord and god which was to recognize Jesus as his master and ruler. 

       Throughout His ministry, Jesus identified Himself as Lord which is to say master. Jesus never identified Himself as the one and only Supreme God.  Jesus identified His Father as being the one and only Supreme God.  Paul, John and other of the Apostles identified Jesus as Lord and identified the Father as the one and only eternal God.  If you are going to conclude Thomas is identifying Jesus is God as the Father is God, you are concluding Thomas is introducing an understanding about Jesus that runs contrary to what Jesus taught and what the Apostles taught regarding who God is versus who Jesus is.   

       In view of the whole of what Scripture teaches as to who God is versus who Jesus is, it is necessary to conclude Thomas is not using theos to identify Jesus as the one and only Supreme, Creator God.  Proclaiming Jesus to be God as the Father is God would have run contrary to Thomas’ deeply ingrained monotheism.  In calling Jesus theos, Thomas is expressing great exhilaration at being convinced Jesus is alive.  It is a joyous response to what Thomas was experiencing.  To take Thomas’ statement to be anything more than this is to create serious contradiction within the Scriptures. 

       It should also be noted that after Thomas said what he said, John states that what he has written is to demonstrate that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God.  Nothing is said or implied that Jesus is the God He is the Son of.

       John 20:31.  But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.

Is Jesus YHWH?

       Some theologians believe when NT writers apply OT passages associated with YHWH to Jesus, they are identifying Jesus as YHWH.  An example of this approach is seen in Romans 10:13.  Here Paul appears to quote from Joel 2:32.

       Romans 10:13: "Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord (Greek: kurios) will be saved."

       Joel 2:32: And everyone who calls on the name of the LORD (YHWH in the Hebrew and kurios in the Septuagint) will be saved; for on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there will be deliverance, as the LORD has said, among the survivors whom the LORD calls.

       In Romans 10:9, Jesus is identified as Lord. “If you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.” Because Jesus is identified as Lord in verse 9, it appears to follow He is the Lord of verse 13 as well where Paul writes about calling on the name of the Lord. Therefore, the “Lord” of Romans 10:13 appears to be Jesus and by Paul applying a phrase to Jesus that is applied to YHWH in the OT, it is believed Paul is identifying Jesus as YHWH.

       If the Lord of verse 13 is Jesus, does Paul’s application of Joel’s saying to Jesus mean Jesus is YHWH?  In verse 9 Paul writes Jesus was raised from the dead by God.  When Paul uses the word God in his writings, context shows he almost invariably uses the word to mean the Father. The Scriptures reveal the Father to be YHWH God.  Is Paul identifying Jesus as also being YHWH God?  Did YHWH God, in his hypostatic existence as Father, resurrect YHWH God, in his hypostatic existence as Son?  Did God resurrect God?

       In verse 11, Paul writes, “As the Scripture says, ‘Anyone who trusts in him will never be put to shame’."  This is an apparent paraphrase of Isaiah 28:16 where the prophet writes, “So this is what the Sovereign LORD (YHWH) says: "See, I lay a stone in Zion, a tested stone, a precious cornerstone for a sure foundation; the one who trusts will never be dismayed.” Isaiah is quoting YHWH as laying a cornerstone in Zion and Paul recognizes this to be a reference to Christ who God (YHWH) raised from the dead (verse 9).  The “Him” Paul refers to is Jesus who Isaiah reveals as the one YHWH has placed in Zion.  Did YHWH the Father place YHWH the Son in Zion?

       Paul follows his statement in verse 11 by saying, “For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile--the same Lord is Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him (verse 12).  In Acts 10:34-35, Peter speaks of God accepting men of every nation who fear Him and do what is right. In verse 36 Peter writes, “You know the message God sent to the people of Israel, telling the good news of peace through Jesus Christ, who is Lord of all.” 

       Because Paul, in Romans 3:29:30 writes of there being one God who is the God of both Jews and Gentiles and writes of Jesus being Lord of both Jews and Gentiles in Romans 10:12, some believe Paul is equating Jesus with YHWH God.  A careful reading of Romans chapter 3 will reveal, however, that it is God the Father who is the focus as the facilitator of salvation through his agent Jesus the Christ.  In verses 25-30 Paul shows how the one God presented Jesus as the sacrifice for sin and it is through Jesus the one God justifies both Jews and Gentiles.  There is not a hint in Romans 3 that Jesus is also the one God Paul is discussing.

       As we have already discussed in our discussions, Paul distinguishes between the one God who is the Father and the one Lord who is the Christ, the anointed of the Father.  A careful examination of the Scriptures will reveal it is the LORD God the Father who through His Lord Christ has facilitated salvation for both Jews and Gentiles.  Jesus is the anointed Lord through whom the Most High LORD does his work.  Jesus is called Lord throughout the NT in his role as the appointed and anointed agent of the one God who is the Father.  Jesus is called Lord because He was made Lord by the one and only Supreme LORD, God the Father (Acts 2:36).  Jesus is Lord in His capacity as the anointed of YHWH God not because he is YHWH God.  Only the Father is intrinsically LORD.  No one made the Father LORD.  The Father has eternally existed as the Supreme LORD of all including being the LORD God of Jesus.  Jesus is seen as receiving His Lordship from the Father.  The Supreme LORD, who is the Father and who is the source of salvation, is seen as facilitating His salvation through the one He made Lord.  Jesus is the mediator of salvation.  Paul plainly said, “For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5). 

       The Father is the Supreme, Most High LORD (YHWH) God Almighty.  Jesus is the Lord Christ, the begotten and anointed of YHWH God. Jesus is the LORD’s lord as we saw in our examination of Psalm 110:1 in Chapter three.  Since the Greek Scriptures use only the one word kurios to designate Lord, context must be the determining factor as to what Lord is being referenced in any given passage.  For example, in Luke’s account of the birth of Jesus, Luke writes:

       Luke 1:32: He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David,   

       Here it is obvious the “Lord God” is referring to the Most High God (YHWH) who is the Father and is seen as distinct and superior to the one to be called the Son.  In Luke 1:26, the Son is referred to as the Lord’s Christ which is to say the anointed of the Most High LORD (YHWH) God.  Here the word Lord is obviously referring to the Father.  The word Lord (kurios) occurs nearly twenty times in Luke chapter 2 and by context can be seen to refer to God the Father.  The very language of Luke, chapter 2 shows seeing Jesus as YHWH God to be a Scriptural untenable position.  

       NT writers apply many sayings from the OT to Christ. Often such sayings are seen to have a different meaning in their OT context.  We saw this to be the case in our examination of Matthew 1:23 and Isaiah 7:14 in Chapter sixteen of this book. Another example is when Joseph was told to escape to Egypt with Mary and the Christ child and return after the death of Herod.  Matthew sees this as a fulfillment of a past historical event recorded in Hosea where the prophet speaks of Israel being called out of Egypt (Hosea 11:1/Matthew 2:14). Matthew uses a fulfilled event associated with Israel and applies it to Christ.  In the NT, writers often see fulfillment of OT events in events current to them in the NT.   Applying OT events to Christ doesn’t mean there is equivalent meaning between the OT and NT events. Taking statements associated with YHWH in the OT and applying them to Christ in the NT doesn’t mean Christ is YHWH.  

       Because YHWH is seen as savior in scripture and Jesus is seen as savior in scripture doesn’t mean Jesus is YHWH any more than Jesus being called out of Egypt means Jesus is Israel because Israel being called out of Egypt is applied to Christ in the NT.  Jesus can be seen as being called on for salvation in Romans 10:13 not because He is YHWH but because He is the facilitator of YHWH’s salvation. Jesus perfectly represents YHWH.  Calling on the name of the Lord Jesus is calling on the name of YHWH, not because Jesus is YHWH but because Jesus is the intermediary between YHWH and man.  When my son represents me in a business deal, he acts on my behalf and facilitates my intentions. My son acts as an intermediary.  A vendor dealing with my son is virtually equivalent to the vendor dealing with me.  This doesn’t mean my son is me.    

       Language applied to YHWH in an OT context which is applied to Jesus in a NT context does not equate YHWH with Jesus.  Use of similar language in different contexts and in association with different individuals does not translate into those individuals being the same individual. To assume such is the case is to assume the thing to be proved and amounts to a Non Sequitur argument where the conclusion does not follow from the premise.  For example, Paul’s statement in 1 Corinthians 10:22 about arousing the Lord’s jealousy is a phrase found in association with YHWH in several OT passages.  Because Paul uses this saying in association with the Lord Christ, some conclude this identifies Christ as YHWH.  It is concluded Jesus is YHWH because similar language is used in association with YHWH in the OT.  Does arousing Jesus to jealousy identify Him with YHWH because YHWH is shown as being aroused to jealousy?  

       In Proverbs 6:34, the writer shows a husband to be aroused to jealousy over his wife becoming involved in adultery.  In Acts 5:17, the high priest and his associates were aroused to jealousy over the success of Peter healing the sick.  In Acts 13:45, the Jews were aroused to jealousy because of what Paul was doing.  No one would conclude these folks were aroused to jealousy because YHWH is seen as being aroused to jealousy.  In 2 Corinthians 11:2, Paul says, “I am jealous for you with a godly jealousy.”  Does Paul having a godly jealously mean he is the Lord God or the Lord Christ? 

       In Psalm 24:1 it is written, “The earth is the LORD's, (YHWH) and everything in it, the world, and all who live in it.”  In 1 Corinthians 10:25-26, Paul is dealing with the issue of foods sacrificed to idols and says, “Eat anything sold in the meat market without raising questions of conscience, for, ‘The earth is the Lord's, and everything in it.’"  Because Paul references Christ a number of times in this chapter, some believe Paul is applying the statement from Psalm 24 to the Lord Jesus in 10:26 and this identifies Jesus as YHWH since it is YHWH who is seen as possessor of the earth in Psalm 24. 

       A careful reading of the entirety of 1 Corinthians 10 will reveal Paul speaks both of God and Jesus as Lord in this passage.  Since the earth is seen as belonging to YHWH in Psalm 24 and YHWH is referenced in a similar manner in Exodus 9:29, I would lean toward Paul referencing the Father in 10:26 as the Father is seen as the YHWH who is creator of heaven  and earth. On the other hand, YHWH has given great power, authority and glory to Jesus which includes rulership over the earth.  Therefore, Jesus could be seen as possessor of the earth.  This doesn’t make Jesus YHWH any more than Jesus being savior equates Him with YHWH.  Jesus is who He is because YHWH has granted Him the wherewithal to be who He is and not because He is YHWH.  

       It is critical we look at the whole of Scripture in determining the relationship between YHWH as LORD and Jesus as Lord. Jesus is the appointed and anointed Lord of the Supreme LORD God Almighty.  Jesus and YHWH are not the same Lord as is clearly seen in our examination of Psalm 110 and dozens of other Scriptural passages we have discussed.  Statements directed to YHWH in the OT and used in association with Jesus in the NT do not identify Jesus as YHWH.        

CHAPTER FIFTEEN